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The Trinity in the Hebrew Bible

By Author Eli Kittim

Despite the misleading objections of Judaism and Islam to the Christian concept of the Trinity, there is compelling evidence that a multiplicity of divine persons exists in the Hebrew Bible, as we find in Prov. 30.3-4, Gen. 35.1-7, as well as in Gen. 31.10-13, in which the Angel of the Lord is identified as God, no less! Note also the multi-personal God in Eccles. 12:1 (YLT):

“Remember also thy Creators in days of thy youth.”

Similarly, there are 2 YHWHs in Genesis 19.24 in the Hebrew text:

“Then the Lord rained on Sodom and Gomorrah sulfur and fire from the Lord out of heaven.”

There are actually 2 persons called YHWH in the above verse. One YHWH is on the earth, standing nearby Sodom and Gomorrah. The other YHWH is in the heavens. It is reminiscent of the two Lords in Psalm 110.1:

“The LORD says to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.' “

In another mysterious passage, the creator of heaven and earth is speaking and surprisingly ends his speech by saying, “the Lord God has sent me." Isaiah 48.12--16 reads:

“Listen to me, O Jacob,  and Israel, whom I called: I am He; I am the first,  and I am the last. My hand laid the foundation of the earth,  and my right hand spread out the heavens;

when I summon them,  they stand at attention.

Assemble, all of you, and hear!  Who among them has declared these things?

The Lord loves him;  he shall perform his purpose on Babylon,  and his arm shall be against the Chaldeans.

I, even I, have spoken and called him,  I have brought him, and he will prosper in his way.

Draw near to me, hear this!  From the beginning I have not spoken in secret,  from the time it came to be I have been there.

And now the Lord God has sent me and his spirit.”

——-

While critics of the Triune God use Deut. 6:4 (The Shema) as a declaration of monotheism, this verse may also refer to a plurality of divine persons within the singular Godhead. The verse essentially reads:

Hear Israel, Yahweh Elohenu Yahweh is one.

It Mentions God 3 times and then declares that he [is] one (echad). Besides mentioning God 3 times, the verse also uses the plural form ĕ·lō·hê·nū to suggest numerically more than one person. It’s tantamount to saying, Israel, pay attention to my declaration about our God: one plus one plus one equals one (or 3 in 1)! Or, Yahweh, Elohenu, Yahweh = One (monotheism)! Elohenu is a noun - masculine plural construct - first person common plural.

Moreover, notice that Yahweh is not called qadosh (singular for ‘holy’) but qə·ḏō·šîm (plural) in Joshua 24.19 as well as in Prov. 9.10:

“The commencement of wisdom is the fear of Jehovah, And a knowledge of the Holy Ones is understanding.”

Hence the plurality in the meaning of the Hebrew term for God, which is “Elohim" (Gen. 1.1), not to mention the multiplicity of divine persons in Gen. 1.26, "Let US make man in OUR image" (emphasis added).

——-

As for the distinction of the third person of the Trinity, namely, the Holy Spirit, besides 2 Sam. 23.2-3, read Isaiah 63.10-11:

“But they rebelled and grieved his holy spirit; therefore he became their enemy; he himself fought against them. Then they remembered the days of old, of Moses his servant. Where is the one who brought them up out of the sea with the shepherds of his flock? Where is the one who put within them his Holy Spirit . . . ?”

——-

Conclusion

Thus, the above-mentioned verses in the Hebrew Scriptures clearly support the theological concept of a multi-personal God——that is to say, a plurality of persons within the singular Godhead, otherwise known as the Trinity, which comprises three persons but one being: One God, yet three coeternal, consubstantial persons (hypostases). These three persons are said to be distinct, yet are nevertheless one "substance, essence or nature" (homoousios).

In other words, the Hebrew Scriptures further substantiate the theological notion of the triune God.

Is the Trinity a Biblical Teaching?

By Author Eli Kittim

“While the developed doctrine of the Trinity

is not explicit in the books that constitute

the New Testament, the New Testament

possesses a ‘triadic’ understanding of God

and contains a number of Trinitarian

formulas, including Matthew 28:19, 2

Corinthians 13:14, 1 Corinthians 12:4-5,

Ephesians 4:4-6, 1 Peter 1:2 and Revelation

1:4-5” (Trinity, Wiki).

The Deity of God the Father

To begin with, there are numerous New Testament verses which reveal God as “Father” (e.g., John 6:27, Titus 1:4). This fundamental concept of the Father as the creator and source of all living beings is of course famously attested in the Hebrew Scriptures with terms such as Yahweh and Elohim!

The Deity of Jesus Christ

We also have multiple texts which refer to the deity of Jesus Christ, depicting him as the so-called Son of God, such as in Jn 1:1 (“the word was God”), Col. 2:9 (“in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily”), Jn 8:58 (“before Abraham was, I am”), Heb. 1:3 (“The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact imprint of his being”), Tit. 2:13 (“our great God and Savior Jesus Christ”), as well as the explicit worship Christ willingly received from his followers (Luke 24:52; John 20:28) and the accusations of blasphemy leveled against him for equating himself with God (Mark 2:7).

The Deity of the Holy Spirit

The personhood of the Holy Spirit is multiply-attested in the New Testament. There are many verses which hint at the deity of the Holy Spirit, calling Him, for example, a “person” (ἐκεῖνος, meaning “He” Jn. 16:13-14; ὁ Παράκλητος, which depicts “a person”; & ἐκεῖνος, meaning “he” Jn. 15:26). The Holy Spirit is also called the “eternal Spirit” (Heb. 9:14), a term that is often used interchangeably with the concept of God (1 Cor. 3:16; 6:19; Acts 5:3-4; Rom. 8:9; 2 Tim. 3:16; 2 Pet. 1:21). For example, the Holy Spirit is called “Lord” in 2 Corinthians 3:17:

“Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the

Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.”

Moreover, the Holy Spirit is said to have insight into “the depths of God” (1 Corinthians 2:10-11). He also possesses knowledge (Romans 8:27). The Spirit is also said to have a personal will (1 Corinthians 12:11). He is capable of convicting the world of sin (John 16:8), and performs signs and miracles (Acts 8:39). He also guides (John 16:13) and intercedes between people (Romans 8:26). He utters commands and is also obeyed (Acts 10:19-20; 16:6). The Spirit talks (Revelation 2:7; 14:13; 22:17). He warns and prophesies of things to come (John 16:13; Acts 20:23). And the New Testament certainly depicts Him as a member of the Trinity (John 16:14; Matthew 28:19; 2 Corinthians 13:14).

The Plurality in the Godhead

What is more, the plurality in the Godhead is well attested not only in the New Testament but also in the Old Testament (Gen. 1:1-3, 26; Psalm 2:7; and Dan. 7:13-14)! Furthermore, there are many New Testament passages that either mention or allude to the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as if they are distinct persons with different functions, yet equated in rank and status as a unit (Matt. 28:19; Gal. 4:6; 1 Cor.12:4-6; 1 Peter 1:1-2; 2 Cor. 13:14; Eph. 2:18; 3:14-17; 4:4-6; 5:18-20; 6:18). After all, Mt. 28:18-20 reads:

“And Jesus came and said to them, ‘All

authority in heaven and on earth has been

given to me. Go therefore and make

disciples of all nations, baptizing them in

the name of the Father and of the Son and

of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to

obey everything that I have commanded

you. And remember, I am with you always,

to the end of the age.’ “

In Greek, 1 John 5:7 reads as follows:

ὅτι τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες ἐν τῷ

οὐρανῷ ὁ πατὴρ ὁ λόγος καὶ τὸ ἅγιον

πνεῦμα καὶ οὗτοι οἱ τρεῖς ἕν εἰσιν.

(Stephens 1550 “Textus Receptus” aka

Received Text).

KJV Translation:

“For there are three that bear record in

heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy

Ghost: and these three are one.”

There has been much debate over 1 John 5:7 as to its authenticity (aka the “Johannine Comma”). Modern Bible versions that were formulated by mostly secular scholars in the 19th century, who largely denied the deity of Christ, used variant manuscripts (e.g., “Alexandrian texts”) to argue that 1 John 5:7 is an interpolation. However, scholars who have a high view of Scripture argue that the “Majority text” was more widely used by the early church and that this verse is in fact authentic and original.

The Trinity in the Hebrew Bible

A multiplicity of divine persons exists in the Hebrew Bible, as we find in Prov. 30:3-4, Gen. 35:1-7, as well as in Gen. 31:10-13 where the Angel of God is identified as God, no less!

Note the multi-personal God also in Eccles. 12:1 (YLT):

“Remember also thy Creators in days of thy

youth.”

While critics of the Triune God use Deut. 6:4 (The Shema) as a declaration of monotheism, this verse may also refer to a plurality of divine persons within the singular Godhead. The verse essentially reads:

Yahweh Elohenu Yahweh is one.

It Mentions God 3 times and then declares that he [is] one (echad). Besides mentioning God 3 times, the verse also uses the plural form ĕ·lō·hê·nū to suggest numerically more than one person. It’s tantamount to saying, Israel, pay attention to my declaration about God: one plus one plus one equals one (or 3 in 1)! Or, Yahweh, Elohenu, Yahweh = One (monotheism)! Elohenu is a noun, masculine plural construct, first person common plural. But what exactly does Deut. 6:4 mean when it says that God is one (echad)? Answer:

“Echad is the Hebrew word for one, but more

precisely it means a single entity but made

up of more than one part. There is another

Hebrew word from the same root – Yachid

which means single. The meaning of Echad

(more than one part) is a confirmation of

the Hebrew word Elohim which is translated

as God. Elohim is a plural word – more than

one . . .”

https://news.kehila.org/the-meaning-of-the-word-echad-one/

Kehila News Israel

The meaning of the word Echad – One

David writes, "The key for both Jews and Christians to learn the correct concept of our God is the word echad. Echad is the Hebrew word for

Moreover, Yahweh is not called qadosh (singular for ‘holy’) but qə·ḏō·šîm (plural) in Joshua 24:19 as well as in Prov. 9:10:

“The commencement of wisdom is the fear

of Jehovah, And a knowledge of the Holy

Ones is understanding.”

As for the distinction of the third person of the Trinity, namely, the Holy Spirit, besides 2 Sam. 23:2-3, read Isaiah 63:10-11:

“But they rebelled and grieved his holy spirit;

therefore he became their enemy; he

himself fought against them. Then they

remembered the days of old, of Moses his

servant. Where is the one who brought

them up out of the sea with the shepherds

of his flock? Where is the one who put

within them his Holy Spirit?”

Thus, the above-mentioned verses in the Hebrew Scriptures clearly support the theological concept of a plurality of persons within the singular Godhead, otherwise known as the Trinity.

The Plurality of Persons Within the Godhead Was Part of Judaism During the Time of Jesus

See my article: https://eli-kittim.tumblr.com/post/611381184411336704/the-two-powers-of-the-godhead-were-part-of-judaism

Eli of Kittim

The Two Powers of the Godhead Were Part of Judaism During the Time of Jesus

The Two Powers of the Godhead Were Part of Judaism During the Time of Jesus ——- Metatron and Jesus The early Jewish concept of “Metatron”

Are the So-Called “gods” of the Old Testament Angels or Men?

By Author Eli Kittim 🎓

“Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, you are

gods'? “ (Jn 10.34).

Are the gods Human?

First, whatever the exegesis might be, and regardless of the diverse interpretations, it is certainly NOT the case that we’re all gods, equal to Jesus and God the father, the co-creators (Jn 1.1-3; Heb. 1.1-2).

That is not the authorial intent of the term “gods” in Jn 10.34, nor Jesus’ explanation of it, where he actually appeals to the Old Testament terminology regarding the “sons of god” (vv. 34-36) in order to apply it to his particular status as the unique Son of God (Υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ SBLGNT).

Second, the notion that the term “gods” refers to men is refuted by both the Masoretic and LXX texts which suggest that these are rulers and powers in God’s kingdom, namely, the angelic host. For instance, in Genesis 6.2, “the sons of god” (בְנֵי־ ḇə·nê הָֽאֱלֹהִים֙ hā·’ĕ·lō·hîm) are clearly fallen angels.

Third, Ephesians 3.10 speaks of “rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms.” Ephesians 6.12 says:

our struggle is not against flesh and blood,

but against the rulers, against the

authorities, against the powers of this dark

world and against the spiritual forces of evil

in the heavenly realms.

Ephesians 1.21 differentiates Jesus (God) from all other heavenly powers, indicating that he’s “above all rule and authority, power and dominion, and every name that is invoked, not only in the present age but also in the one to come.” These then are the rulers and powers in high places, the sons of Elohim who are called “gods” in Ps 82.6, not men.

Psalm 82

The Greek text of the Septuagint from the LCL Brenton edition/“translation” of Psalm 82 (Ps. 81 LXX) reads as follows:

1 Ο ΘΕΟΣ ἔστη ἐν συναγωγῇ θεῶν, ἐν μέσῳ δὲ θεοὺς διακρινεῖ. . . . 6 ἐγὼ εἶπα· θεοί ἐστε καὶ υἱοὶ ῾Υψίστου πάντες· 7 ὑμεῖς δὲ ὡς ἄνθρωποι ἀποθνήσκετε καὶ ὡς εἷς τῶν ἀρχόντων πίπτετε. 8 ἀνάστα, ὁ Θεός, κρίνων τὴν γῆν, ὅτι σὺ κατακληρονομήσεις ἐν πᾶσι τοῖς ἔθνεσι.

NRSV translation

1 God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment: . . . 6 I say, "You are gods, children of the Most High, all of you; 7 nevertheless, you shall die like mortals, and fall like any prince." 8 Rise up, O God, judge the earth; for all the nations belong to you!

First, notice that just like the angelic host who are called “sons of God” in Gen. 6.2, in Ps. 82 the term “gods” does not imply deity but rather being “children of the Most High” (v. 6) or υἱοὶ ῾Υψίστου (LXX). Second, if they are in fact “gods,” divine as it were, why then will they “die like mortals” (v. 7)? That would contradict their divine status. What is more, the text DOES NOT say that they ARE mortals, but that they will die AS IF they were mortals. The text seems to be addressing the evil angelic host that rebelled against God the most high. Besides, if they were in fact mortals, why would they die “like” mortals? The analogy only works if they were something other than mortals and are being compared to mortals. You don’t say to a mortal that you’re going to die like a mortal. That’s a given if he’s a mortal. You can only use this language if the person is something other than a mortal.

Question: So if these beings are neither divine nor mortal, then what are they?

Answer: part of the angelic hierarchy of rulers and powers.

The clue is given in the very first verse of Psalm 82:

Ο ΘΕΟΣ ἔστη ἐν συναγωγῇ θεῶν, ἐν μέσῳ

δὲ θεοὺς διακρινεῖ (LXX).

Translation:

God has taken his place in the divine

council; in the midst of the gods he holds

judgment.

Question: When did God Almighty ever summon the judges & rulers of Israel in his presence for a divine council?

Answer: Never!

The phrase συναγωγῇ θεῶν (divine council; in the midst of the gods) can only refer to heavenly places. Thus, the idea that the term “gods” refers to men is unwarranted and without merit!

It’s also important to note that the use of the word “gods” as a reference to human beings in the Old Testament is rare.

God versus gods: Elohim versus elohim

The language of 1 Chronicles 5.25 is one which pits “God” against “gods,” which in the Hebrew language is actually Elohim versus elohim. Since Biblical Hebrew is an “aspectual” language, it’s the *context* that determines the meaning:

But they transgressed against the God

[Elohim] of their ancestors, and prostituted

themselves to the gods [elohim] of the

peoples of the land, whom God [Elohim]

had destroyed before them.

The Septuagint sets it up as the God of their fathers (ἐν Θεῷ/ὁ Θεὸς πατέρων αὐτῶν) versus the gods of the peoples of the earth (θεῶν τῶν λαῶν τῆς γῆς).

In 2 chron. 32.17, “the Lord the God of Israel [Yahweh Elohim]” or the “God [Elohim] of Hezekiah” is pitted against the “gods [elohim] of the nations.” The LXX distinguishes the terms as the Lord God of Israel/God of Hezekiah (Κύριον Θεὸν ᾿Ισραὴλ/Θεὸς ᾿Εζεκίου) versus the gods of the nations of the earth (οἱ θεοὶ τῶν ἐθνῶν τῆς γῆς). So despite the fact that identical words are used for both one God and many gods, the difference is clear based on the context. For example, in Deuteronomy 12.31, “the Lord your God [Yahweh Elohim]” is distinguished from “their gods [elohim].” Similarly, the LXX differentiates the terminology as your God (Θεῷ σου), which refers to the true God, versus their gods (θεοῖς αὐτῶν), which is elsewhere depicted as the false gods or idols. Notice that the designation “gods” in all these examples is not a reference to humans.

Another way to distinguish Yahweh Elohim from all the other elohim is that he is addressed as the “God of gods” (Θεὸς θεῶν LXX) in Dan 2.47, and elsewhere as the “creator” or the “most high” (Deut. 32.15; Gen. 14.22). Even though the Hebrew term elohim is sometimes translated as “judges” in Exodus 22.8, 9, nevertheless the LXX clarifies that those who are said to judge do so in the presence of God (ἐνώπιον τοῦ Θεοῦ). Hence the reference is to God, not men.

Eloha Versus El

Eloha could refer to a True or a false god. To determine which is which, it all depends on the context. For example, Deut. 32.15 is clear that this is a reference to (אֱל֣וֹהַ ’ĕ·lō·w·ha), the God of Israel, the creator who made him (עָשָׂ֔הוּ ā·śā·hū). The LXX clarifies this Eloha as the God who made him (Θεὸν τὸν ποιήσαντα αὐτὸν), as well as the God of his salvation (Θεοῦ σωτῆρος αὐτοῦ). In Deut 32.17 there’s a difference between Eloha (אֱלֹ֔הַ God) and elohim (אֱלֹהִ֖ים gods). The Septuagint presents the dichotomy as one God (Θεῷ) versus many gods (θεοῖς). Although in 2 Chronicles 32.15 ’ĕ·lō·w·ha (אֱל֙וֹהַ֙) is used as “god,” but not as the true God, in Nehemiah 9.17 ’ĕ·lō·w·ah (אֱל֨וֹהַּ) is now the true God (Θεὸς LXX). In fact, in Ps. 114.7 ’ĕ·lō·w·ah (אֱל֣וֹהַּ) is the God of Jacob (τοῦ Θεοῦ ᾿Ιακὼβ LXX). So context is king!

El, on the other hand, is usually a reference to the Almighty, but the term could also be used to refer to both God or god. For example, in Gen. 14.18 Melchizedek is priest of God (לְאֵ֥ל el) most high (עֶלְיֽוֹן׃ el·yō·wn), which in vv. 19-20 is associated with the God of Abram (Αβραμ τῷ Θεῷ τῷ ὑψίστῳ LXX). But in verse 22 he is identified as יְהוָה֙ Yah·weh God (אֵ֣ל el) most high. The Septuagint confirms this viewpoint as it says in v. 18 that Melchizedek is a priest of God most high (Μελχισεδέκ ἱερεὺς τοῦ Θεοῦ τοῦ ὑψίστου). In verse 22, the LXX calls God, the most high, the creator of heaven and earth (τὸν Θεὸν τὸν ὕψιστον, ὃς ἔκτισε τὸν οὐρανὸν καὶ τὴν γῆν). In Gen. 16.13, Yahweh (yhvh is the proper name of the God of Israel) is also the el (which depending on the context can be interpreted either as sg. God or pl. gods) or the true God (ὁ Θεὸς LXX). In Gen 17.1 Yahweh appeared to Abram and said I am el Shadday (the almighty). However, the LXX renders it simply as your God (ὁ Θεός σου). Gen. 21.33 renders *Yahweh el olam* as Yahweh God the eternal (Θεὸς αἰώνιος LXX).

So, we should not be confused by the terms used for God simply because they’re sometimes used to refer to false gods. The context will always indicate which is which. The name Yahweh especially differentiates God most high from all other gods. But, as you can clearly see from our brief study, the term “gods” can only be applied to the heavenly host, not to human beings!

——-

A Critical Review of the “TruthUnedited” YouTube Channel Which Teaches a Heretical Christian Doctrine

By Bible Researcher & Author Eli Kittim 🎓

What is the Truthunedited Platform?

Although the practical side of this YouTube channel appears to have a semblance of Christianity, the theology is definitely Judaic!

This YouTube channel is called “Truthunedited” and it also has an affiliated website: Truthunedited.com. These platforms are apparently run by the host, Mr. Ron Charles. Unfortunately, I could not find anything about his qualifications. This is a very popular YouTube channel that has 604k subscribers.

Their website seems to advertise books by the Restored Church of God (RCG), an offshoot of the teachings and doctrines of Herbert W. Armstrong who was the leader of the Worldwide Church of God (WCG). The RCG is a cult which,

denies the Trinity, says that God is a

composition of two beings … that being

born again means being resurrected from

flesh to spirit, that the earth was re-

created, that people will not go to hell and

will be annihilated, that Christians do not go

to heaven, … that the Holy Spirit is a force.”

——- Wiki

I skimmed through some of the videos that he’s put forth and they seem quite disturbing. For example, one of the videos refers to Easter as a goddess, which is based on the discredited 19th century book “The Two Babylons” by Alexander Hislop. The actual word Easter in Greek is “Pascha” (Πάσχα), from the Jewish “Passover” (aka Pesach). So, in trying to discredit Easter as a pagan holiday, his argument is irrelevant to the original Hebrew festival because he’s arguing only from the English translation, the so-called Month of Ēostre', which is historically a so-called “Paschal month" that corresponds to April.

In another video (“What is the true name of our creator & messiah?”), Mr. Ron Charles differentiates between the creator and the messiah, even though Hebrews 1.2 & John 1.1-3 tell us explicitly that Jesus is in fact the creator! Mr. Charles admits that he is part of the Hebrew Roots movement——which is a Jewish religious movement that advocates adherence to the Torah and the Law of Moses——something that Paul criticized vehemently. More on that later. He writes: “I want to discuss why I prefer using the Hebrew name of our creator and the Hebrew name of our Messiah.” But the messiah **Is** the creator! Why distinguish between the creator and the messiah? Well, because that is a Hebrew, not a Christian, position.

A Critical Review of the Truthunedited Video: “This is How a Believer Should Live in These Last Days”

While viewing this channel, I saw some other heretical videos as well but I would like to limit the discussion to one particular video which I listened to from start to finish, namely, a recent YouTube video entitled “This is How a Believer Should Live in These Last Days.”

The content of this video is quite shocking! As a case in point, what does the host mean by saying that he praises “Yah”? Is he a Hebrew convert? Because in the New Testament the name Yah is never mentioned, not even once! According to the New Testament, we must ONLY praise **Jesus**:

Salvation is found in no one else, for there is

no other name under heaven given to

mankind by which we must be saved.

——- Acts 4.12 NIV

Yet, in this entire video, Mr. Charles mentions the actual name of the God-incarnate-messiah “Jesus” only once, and that in passing, as a pejorative translation. And yet, the original Greek name of the Messiah is Iésous, the correct English translation of which is Jesus.

Moreover, Mr. Ron Charles keeps talking about his personal relationship with the Father. He never once mentions his personal relationship with the Son. As a matter of fact, when he refers to God’s Son, who’s coequal with the Father, he simply calls him by the vague term “messiah.” Mr. Charles claims to come from the Hebrew Roots Movement. But, as far as the Jews are concerned, the messiah is NOT Jesus. For example, a majority of the Jewish Chabad community believe that Rabbi Menachem Mendel Schneerson, the deceased seventh Rebbe of the Chabad-Lubavitch dynasty, is the Jewish messiah. Is that who he’s referring to? Different religions have different messiahs. For instance, in Islam there is Imam Husayn and the Twelfth Imám (Shí’ih), and the Promised Qá’im in the Bábí Faith. There is also the Buddha Maitreya-Amitabha, the Shah Bahrám (Zoroastrianism), and the Avatar Kalki (Hinduism). These are different messiahs that are associated with different belief systems. To the Rastafari religion, it is Haile Selassie I from Ethiopia. So, which of these messiahs is he referring to? And if he’s a Christian, why doesn’t he mention the name of Jesus Christ, which is the name above all other names?

He discusses the cultural deception that is going on and “the marketing of Satan,” but his misleading approach to Jesus Christ and the New Testament is equally dangerous and deceptive because it not only mixes Christianity with Judaism, but it also destroys the New Testament from within by radically changing its terminology, it’s theology, and even the name of it’s God. If we don’t even know who we are praying to, why bother to pray at all? I don’t know enough about his soteriological views because I haven’t listened to any of his other videos, except one. I don’t know what salvation means to him. But given that he is part of the Hebrew Roots Movement, I suspect he thinks that we have to follow the laws of Moses, observe the sabbaths, etc. But Paul urges us to do the exact opposite (cf. Acts 16.31):

all are justified freely by his [God’s] grace

through the redemption that came by Christ

Jesus. ——- Rom 3.24

Jesus answered, ‘I am the way and the

truth and the life. No one comes to the

Father except through me.’ ——- John 14.6

In the New Testament, is the Messiah’s Name Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic? Is it Ἰησοῦς or Yeshua?

In the video that we’re discussing, the host keeps repeating the name Yahusha. But who is Yahusha, anyway? Can he show us where that name is mentioned in the Greek New Testament as Jesus’ name? Answer: nowhere! The host mentions the name of Jesus only once, in passing, by erroneously stating that his name is “Yahusha, who in English is translated to Jesus.” In order to confirm this translation, please give us chapter and verse in the New Testament where Yahusha is written as the name of Jesus. This so-called “evidence” doesn’t exist. The New Testament only mentions the name Ἰησοῦς, which in English is translated as Jesus, not Yahusha (see the original Greek New Testament: Matthew 1.16; 3.13, 15-16; 4.1, 7, 10, 17; 7.28; 8.4, 10, 13, 14, 18, 20, 22; 9.2, 4, etc.). And I’m only partially citing the gospel of Matthew. There are many more references. Besides, there are three more gospels, the book of Acts, the epistles, and the Book of Revelation. The name Iesous (Jesus) is mentioned nearly 1,000 times in the New Testament. The Greek text never once refers to Jesus as Yahusha or Yeshua!

If Jesus’ name was in fact the Hebrew Yeshua, why didn’t the New Testament transliterate it as Yeshua? By contrast, the name “Ἰησοῦς” is not annotated as a transliteration, even though Hebraic transliterations are typically explained in the New Testament one way or another. For example:

1) In Mark 11.9, hosanna (ὡσαννὰ) is

explained.

2) ελωι ελωι λεμα σαβαχθανι is explained in

Mark 15.34; Matthew 27.46.

3) Talitha cum is explained in Mark 5.41.

4) In John 20.16, "Rabbouni” is explained.

5) In Romans 8.15, Abba is explained.

6) In Matthew 1.23, the name “Immanuel” is

explained.

The Aramaisms that exist in the Greek New Testament are typically explained or defined. For example, in Matthew 27.46, we read:

Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani? (which means

‘My God, my God, why have you forsaken

me?’).

By contrast, the name ΙΗΣΟΥΣ (Jesus) is *never* *ever* explained as an *aramaism,* nor defined as an Aramaic or Hebrew name. If what Mr. Charles says is true, why doesn’t the New Testament indicate that the name “Jesus” is the transliteration of Yeshua? You would think that a name as important as Jesus would necessitate such an explanation. The fact that there isn’t any indicates that the Greek name Iēsous is not a transliteration from the Late Biblical Hebrew Yēšūaʿ (Yeshūa):

The English name Jesus derives from the

Late Latin name Iesus, which transliterates

the Koine Greek name Ἰησοῦς Iēsoûs.

——- Wiki

By contrast:

The name יֵשׁוּעַ, Yeshua ([is] transliterated in

the English Old Testament as Jeshua).

——- Wiki

Conflating the Hebrew name of Joshua with Jesus Christ is confusing for various reasons:

In Nehemiah 8:17 this name refers to

Joshua son of Nun, the successor of Moses,

as leader of the Israelites. ——- Wiki

According to the Book of Numbers verse

13:16, the name of Joshua, the son of Nun

was originally Hosheaʿ (הוֹשֵעַ), and the

name Yehoshuaʿ (יְהוֹשֻׁעַ) is usually spelled

the same but with a yod added at the

beginning. ——- Wiki

So what do we call the messiah of the New Testament? Joshua son of Nun, Hoshea, Yəhōšūaʿ, Yeshua, or whatever other Hebrew name we could think of?

New Testament Misquotes and Hebrew Interpolations

Mr. Ron Charles, the host of this video, misquotes Paul as supposedly saying that “this is the Will of Elohim & Yahusha for you.” But Paul does not mention either Elohim or Yahusha in his letters. Why is he putting words in Paul’s mouth that Paul never said? This is misleading because he’s colouring the Greek New Testament with foreign elements from the Hebrew Roots movement. If he’s going to refer to the New Testament, it’s appropriate that he uses the original Greek words of the text. Hebrew is appropriate only for the Old Testament.

He further misquotes Ephesians 5.17. The text reads “Lord,” not master. Ephesians 5.17 uses the Greek term “kurios” to mean “Lord.” We are not talking about kung-fu, platonic philosophy, or Buddhism where there’s a master-disciple relationship. We’re talking about reverence to almighty God. The only appropriate translations are “Lord” or “God.” None of the credible Bible translations quote kurios as master. I’m not sure which Bible version he’s using. He also misquotes Romans 12.11, 19, and Philippians 3.1. The word is Κυρίῳ (Lord), not Yahuah! Furthermore, in Philippians 3.14, the words are God (θεοῦ, not Elohim), and Christ Jesus (Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, not Messiah Yahuah). In Philippians 3.20, the words are Lord Jesus Christ (κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν), not “master Yahusha the messiah.” This is a way of belittling the name of Jesus by not mentioning his name *properly* or *reverently* and not referring to him in a manner worthy of the name that is above all names. That name is actually Ἰησοῦs (i.e. Jesus) in the Greek New Testament. It is not a Hebrew name derived from the Old Testament or from Pharisaical Judaism.

Mr. Charles then misquotes James 1.27 and mentions a “Pure and undefiled religion before Elohim and the father.” And if the Father is not Elohim, then who is Elohim? In the New Testament, neither Jesus nor the Father is ever called Elohim. Mr. Ron Charles doesn’t seem to be familiar with textual criticism, the Greek New Testament, or with Christian theology.

He then misquotes 2 Corinthians 5.20 by using the vague term “messiah”——a term that means different things to different people——and also by mentioning Elohim who, once again, is never mentioned in the New Testament. Here is the phrase in the original Greek (2 Corinthians 5.20 SBLGNT):

ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ οὖν πρεσβεύομεν ὡς τοῦ

θεοῦ παρακαλοῦντος δι’ ἡμῶν · δεόμεθα

ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, καταλλάγητε τῷ θεῷ.

As you can see, the Greek words that Paul uses are Christ (Χριστοῦ) and God (θεῷ), not messiah or Elohim. That’s why Jesus is known as Jesus Christ, whom he never mentions, except once as a pejorative or pagan translation. Yet he claims that “we are representatives of the gospel.” But if he identifies with the New Testament, why is his theology derived from the Old Testament? I also noticed that his relationship is not with the Son, but rather with the Father, because he keeps saying that he had some issues that the father had to help him work through.

What is more, he keeps praising this unknown and obscure messiah without once revealing what his true name is: the name that is above all other names, mind you. This New Testament name stands far above the other Old Testament names (such as Elohim and Yahweh) because we are not supposed to call on these names for salvation. So, which name do we call upon for salvation? We are to call on the name of Jesus (Acts 4.12)!

Hebrew Roots Beliefs

In case you’re not familiar with the Hebrew Roots Movement, here are some of their beliefs:

Hebrew Roots followers believe that sin is

breaking the Torah (cf. 1 John 3:4), all of the

purity laws such as dietary restrictions and

sabbath keeping are in the Torah, thus it is

sinful to not keep the sabbath and to eat

forbidden animals, among other social and

religious observance laws. ——- Wiki

Unlike the New Testament that does away with the works of the law (legalism) in favor of grace, the Hebrew Roots followers believe in observing the Law of Moses and the Torah:

Old Testament/Torah Laws and the

teachings of the New Testament are to be

obeyed by both Jews and Gentiles in the

community of believers. (See Numbers

15:15–16 for the explanation). ——- Wiki

But these “Hebrew Roots” beliefs are the exact opposite of what the Greek New Testament teaches. In fact, this is precisely the charge that Paul brought against Judaizers in Galatians. Paul says in Galatians 2.16:

know that a person is not justified by the

works of the law, but by faith in Jesus

Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in

Christ Jesus that we may be justified by

faith in Christ and not by the works of the

law, because by the works of the law no one

will be justified.

In Galatians 2.21, Paul says:

I do not set aside the grace of God, for if

righteousness could be gained through the

law, Christ died for nothing!

In Galatians 3.11, Paul repeats the justification of faith teaching through grace:

Clearly no one who relies on the law is

justified before God, because ‘the righteous

will live by faith.’

It’s also found in many other places, including Romans 3.20:

Therefore no one will be declared righteous

in God’s sight by the works of the law.

It doesn’t get any clearer than that. We are not to observe the law. We are saved by faith in Jesus Christ alone! In fact, the entire New Testament can be summed up as the revelation of the person and work of Jesus Christ (Ιησούς Χριστός).

Alas, even as he ends his video, Mr. Ron Charles keeps talking about Elohim, while repeating the ambiguous and enigmatic term “messiah” over and over again. He also keeps mentioning “Yah” nonstop. But who is “Yah” in the New Testament? He is never mentioned. In fact, Mr. Charles ends the video by saying “praise yah.” Really? Not Jesus? And he is supposedly a Christian who identifies with the Gospel of the New Testament? I don’t think so. This is clearly a heretical Jewish theology that radically deviates from, and corrupts the truths of, Christianity!

See my essay:

“Yahweh is Never Once Mentioned in the New Testament”

https://www.instagram.com/p/BjOF_wqhKdv/?igshid=YmMyMTA2M2Y=

——-

Answering Tuvia Pollack’s “Jesus, Yeshua or Yahshua?”

By Goodreads Author & Bible Researcher Eli Kittim 🎓

Introduction

Tuvia Pollack writes for Kehila News, which seems to be a Messianic-Jewish apologetics blog. He has no formal biblical training, as far as I know. According to the Kehila news blog, “Tuvia Pollack is an unpublished writer of historical fiction novels depicting Judeo-Christian relations throughout history.”

According to his own words, Mr. Pollack is “an Israeli Messianic Jew” who believes “in the Jewish faith … and the Old and New Testament.” He wrote an essay (“Jesus, Yeshua or Yahshua?”) in which he’s basically trying to establish the notion that the Greek name for Jesus (Ἰησοῦs) in the New Testament comes from the Hebrew Yeshua or Yahshua, and he therefore concludes that it doesn’t really matter what we call the messiah. In other words, we can call him any of the 3 names that he mentions above. However, his whole thesis is flawed because he doesn’t understand the finer points of biblical scholarship and how details often go unnoticed. I will not go over his entire paper but rather explore a few key comments that he made therein.

Does it Matter What We Call the Object of Our Worship?

In reference to Jesus, Mr. Pollack writes:

Calling on his name is what mattered,

whether you would say Iesous as the

Greeks would, or Yeshua as the Jews would.

Not true. The New Testament is very specific with names, especially with the name that is above all other names. If any form of the name of Yeshua would do, then that means that any form of the name of God would do as well, right? Wrong! Acts 4:12 (NJB) declares:

of all the names in the world given to

men, this is the only one by which we can

be saved.

Notice that the NT doesn’t say “Salvation is found in no one else” except in Yahweh. Yahweh is never once mentioned in the NT. Not once! The name Elohim is never once mentioned in the NT either. Neither Yeshua nor Yehoshua are ever mentioned in the New Testament. Not even once! The only name that we are commanded to call on is Ἰησοῦς (translated into English as Jesus). We should not overlook this state of affairs. If the New Testament doesn’t even mention the name Yahweh, why would a Christian call on Yahweh instead of Jesus? Yet there are many so-called Christians who never mention the name of Jesus but keep praising Yahweh who is never mentioned by name in the Greek New Testament. Isn’t that bizarre, if not cultic? By that logic, why would a Christian call on Elohim or Yahshua in time of trouble? After all, we must know who we serve and who we worship. Throughout the New Testament, Christians are not instructed to call on Allah, Yahweh or Yahshua. They are repeatedly told to call on the “King of kings and Lord of lords” (Rev. 19.16). There is only one name associated with that title, namely, Christ Jesus (Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς)! After all, that’s the whole point of the New Testament’s revelation, namely, that Jesus is God and the great “I AM” (Rev. 1.8; 22.13). The NT trumps the OT. Therefore, we should not impose OT theology on the NT. Rather, we should get our final revelation of Iesous from the NT per se!

A Bad Theology Based On a Mistranslation

Pollack writes:

When the New Testament was written in

Greek, the name of the Messiah is said to

be Iesous ‘because he will save his people.’

That’s an unfaithful translation, which is based on a Hebrew theology that the name of Jesus is derived from Jewish sources. Mr. Pollack doesn’t understand Greek, so he’s relying on English translations to carry him through. Allow me to explain. Here is the critical Greek text (original text). Mt 1.21 (SBLGNT) says:

τέξεται δὲ υἱὸν καὶ καλέσεις τὸ ὄνομα

αὐτοῦ Ἰησοῦν, αὐτὸς γὰρ σώσει τὸν λαὸν

αὐτοῦ ἀπὸ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν αὐτῶν.

My Translation:

She will then bear a son and you will call his

name Ἰησοῦν; he indeed will save his

people from their sins.

Keep in mind that this verse neither explains the name Ἰησοῦν as an Aramaic or Hebrew name, nor does it define it etymologically as a linguistic transliteration, translation, or pronunciation from the Hebrew language. This is precisely where *Hebrew Roots Theology* twists the Greek to make it say what it wants it to say. The English (Christian) translations typically try to connect the name with a cause, and so they’ll usually take the word γὰρ (which very often doesn't mean “for,” according to Bill Mounce) and they’ll try to assign to it a “reason” for the name. So, they usually end up translating it as “for,” in the sense of “because.” But even though it is commonly translated as such, the Greek grammatical construction sounds very awkward when you insert the conjunction “for” in between αὐτὸς and σώσει. It would literally read: “he for will save.” Just to give you an example, John 4.44 reads:

αὐτὸς γὰρ Ἰησοῦς ἐμαρτύρησεν ὅτι

προφήτης ἐν τῇ ἰδίᾳ πατρίδι τιμὴν οὐκ ἔχει.

Translation (NJB):

He himself had declared that a prophet is

not honoured in his own home town.

Notice that we have a similar clause: αὐτὸς γὰρ Ἰησοῦς. Where is the translation “for” in this verse? Nowhere! The conjunction γάρ is translated as “himself.” In many other cases, γάρ is translated as “indeed.” In fact that is the correct translation, here, in Mt 1.21 (My Translation):

She will then bear a son and you will call his

name Ἰησοῦν; he indeed will save his

people from their sins.

There is no explanatory factor here, just that Ἰησοῦς will indeed save his people. The term “indeed” acts as an assurance or a reaffirmation that this statement is in fact true.

Mr. Pollack doesn’t take into account the fact that Hebrew was a consonantal writing system with no vowels. That’s why we don’t really know what the tetragrámmaton יהוה (transliterated as YHWH) sounded like phonetically. Nor do we know what these other names sounded like. These are approximations at best, yet Mr. Pollack writes about these names as if they were written in stone and well known.

What Happens if the Greek New Testament is Suddenly Changed into the Hebrew New Testament?

Mr. Pollack then goes on to write that no matter what you call Jesus, it doesn’t really matter. Really? Could you call him Allah? Or Yahweh? Or Elohim? Or Lucifer? He mentions how some Christians abhor Judaizing, which I will get to in a minute. Judaizing is actually very dangerous. This is an attempt by the Hebrew Roots movement to revert Christians back to Judaism, to the laws of Moses, the Hebrew covenants, and the Sabbath, while pretending that Jews don’t really need Jesus to be saved because there are actually 2 groups of people within Christianity: the Jews and the church (Dual-covenant theology). Not only that, but they turn the Greek New Testament into a Jewish book, and they also manipulate the Greek words by changing them into Hebrew. This is a complete corruption of the Greek text, and of Christian theology. How many times have you heard the alpha and omega being declared as the aleph and the tav? Or Jesus being referred to as Yeshua Hamashiach? Others try to interpret the Greek NT passages by using the Hebrew language. Does that sound like a proper method of exegesis, or does it sound like a corruption of the inspired text? It’s like trying to understand Polish literature through the Chinese language. At any rate, returning to our vignette, Pollack objects to the Christian attack on Judaizers, and writes:

‘Saying Yeshua instead of Jesus is

Judaizing.’ Will you then please tell

me, what we Israeli Hebrew speakers are

supposed to say? How should we address

him in Hebrew? Do you expect us to adopt

the Greekified version instead of his original

name?

But the Greek version contains his original name, which is given to us in the Greek New Testament by God. Anything else is a perversion and a corruption of God’s word. Otherwise, we’re disrespecting the NT by implying that only the OT is inspired. When Mr. Pollack tries to usurp the original name that is inspired by God, and supplant it with a foreign one, he’s not only violating and corrupting God’s word, but he’s also imposing his own Jewish theology on the text, rather than respecting the principles of textual criticism.

By that logic, Christians should still call on Yahweh. But God is never mentioned as Yahweh in the NT. Jews may not care, but Christians do care and want to call God by his proper name. If we don’t know which God we believe in, and which God we serve, or whom we worship, then how can we even claim to be Christians who follow Christ? Calling and praising Yah is not Christianity. It’s Judaism.

Is the Ἰησοῦς of the Septuagint the Exact Same Name We Find in the New Testament?

Moreover, Mr. Pollack uses the logic that since the Book of Joshua in the Septuagint (LXX) translates the name Yeshua as Ἰησοῦς, then the matter is officially settled. It must come from Hebraic sources. Here’s the backstory. Joshua, son of Nun——who later succeeded Moses as the chief leader of the Israelite tribes——was originally called Hoshea (הוֹשֵׁעַ‎ Hōšēaʿ‍), and Moses changed his name to “Yehoshua,” which afterwards became shortened to “Yeshua.”

However, this is akin to a genetic fallacy. A genetic fallacy occurs when an argument is based on a word’s origin or history rather than its content. It asserts that a word's historical meaning is its only valid meaning and that its current meaning is invalid. But anyone who studies philology and linguistics knows that names and words change and evolve over time. For example, the word “nice,” derived from the Latin nescius, originally had a negative connotation and meant “unaware,” or “ignorant.” That is not what the word “nice” means today. There are many similar examples. In fact, many classical Greek words began to have different meanings or connotations in Koine within only a few hundred years. The point is, the meaning of words is not static. It changes over time, just as languages change and evolve. All languages undergo diachronic changes. Therefore, a name that was once ascribed to a Hebrew man named Hoshea, son of nun (based on a Hebrew meaning), may not have the same etymology as a diachronic name assigned to a different figure, centuries later, in a different language and based on a Greek meaning. From a philological standpoint, that’s the key difference between the LXX and the NT rendering of Iesous. Whatever the name may have meant in the 3rd century BC, it had a significantly different meaning centuries later as it was assigned to the Son of God. The name Iesous might have had the same referent in both the LXX and the NT but not necessarily the same sense (cf. Heb. 4:8). In fact, the argument of whether or not the NT Ἰησοῦς is a distinctly Greek name or a Hebraic transliteration (derived from the earlier LXX) is analogous to the argument of whether or not the OT Yahweh is a distinctly Hebraic name or the patron god of metallurgy (derived from the earlier Canaanite pantheon). It’s the exact same argument with the exact same conclusion. Although the name Yahweh is shared by both religions, Jews rightly believe that the earlier Canaanite Yahweh is not the same as the Yahweh of the Old Testament. In the same way, the earlier Ἰησοῦς of the LXX bears no resemblance to the Divine Ἰησοῦς of the New Testament!

Here’s a case in point. Cyril of Jerusalem was born at or near the city of Jerusalem and was steeped in the writings of the Christian scholars. He was a learned theologian who obviously understood both Greek & Hebrew. He knew the Septuagint extremely well because that was his Old Testament, given that the Latin Vulgate had not been written yet. Knowing Hebrew, he obviously knew that the Book of Joshua (Yeshua) was translated as Iesous. Yet, despite all that, Cyril nevertheless considered the name Iesous to be of Greek origin. The same thing occurred with another towering figure of Bible scholarship and one of the greatest theologians of early Christianity, Clement of Alexandria. He lived very early (150 – c. 215). He was a famous Christian theologian and Bible scholar who taught at the Catechetical School of Alexandria. Some of his pupils were Origen and Alexander of Jerusalem. He was obviously steeped in the LXX and yet he, too, attributed the name Ἰησοῦς to Greek sources. In fact, the Catholic Encyclopedia writes that many early church fathers considered the name Ἰησοῦς to be of Greek origin. For instance, both St. Cyril of Jerusalem (catechetical lectures 10.13) & Clement of Alexandria (Paedagogus, Book 3) considered the name Ἰησοῦς to be derived from Greek sources. Thus, it appears that the name Ἰησοῦς has different meanings in the Hebrew and Greek languages. Cyril of Jerusalem writes:

Jesus then means according to the Hebrew

‘Saviour‘, but in the Greek tongue ‘The

Healer.’

Cyril is most likely referring to the derivation of the name Ἰησοῦς from Ἰάσων (Iásōn), meaning "healer".

see 2392. iasis (“healing”)

https://biblehub.com/greek/2392.htm

We find the same idea in Revelation 9.11 in which *the same referent* (i.e. destroyer) of an angelic king has 2 different renderings in Hebrew (Abaddon) and Greek (Apollyon).

Evidence from Within the New Testament that Ἰησοῦs is a Greek Name

As serious students of the Bible, and especially of the NT, we should not accept a Hebrew alteration or a redefinition of what the New Testament says, as this would be equivalent to an eisegesis. Regardless of what the consensus might be, we should always demand an exegesis directly from within the Greek New Testament itself. Otherwise we’re changing not only what God said, but also how he said it!

Even in the introduction of the Greek name Ἰησοῦς, never once does the New Testament EXPLICITLY say, SUGGEST, or even REMOTELY hint that it is an Aramaic or Hebrew name. Nowhere, in any NT book, do you find a Hebraic definition or explanation for the name Ἰησοῦς. It doesn’t even work as a Hebraism. If it was a Hebraic transliteration, it would have been rendered as Ωσηέ (Hoshea הוֹשֵׁעַ‎ Hōšēaʿ). What is more, Hebraic transliterations are typically explained in the New Testament one way or another. For example:

1) In Mark 11.9, hosanna (ὡσαννὰ) is

explained.

2) In Mark 15.34; Matthew 27.46, «ελωι ελωι

λεμα σαβαχθανι» is explained.

3) In Mark 5.41, “Talitha cum” is explained.

4) In John 20.16, “Rabbouni” is explained.

5) In Romans 8.15, “Abba” is explained.

6) In Matthew 1.23, the name “Immanuel” is

explained.

The Aramaisms that exist in the Greek New Testament are typically explained or defined. By contrast, the name ΙΗΣΟΥΣ (Jesus) is *never* *ever* explained as an *aramaism,* nor defined as an Aramaic or Hebrew name.

You would think that a name as important as Jesus would **necessitate** such an explanation. The fact that there isn’t any indicates that the Greek name Iēsous is not a transliteration of Hōšēaʿ. At least not in NT times. Mt. 1.21 clearly says “you should call his name Jesus” (Ἰησοῦς). It doesn’t say that this is a pronunciation or a transliteration of the Hebrew name Hoshea or Yeshua.

The Hebrew Roots movement has attempted to turn Christianity into Judaism. Have you ever heard any pastor preaching about Ἰησοῦς? All you hear is “Yeshua Hamashiach” and Yahweh. Well, Yahweh is never once mentioned in the NT. Nor is Yashua. If God doesn’t mention them, why should we?

If people want to go back to the OT, that’s fine. But don’t call yourselves Christians and expect the third temple to be rebuilt, and the animal sacrifices to be reinstituted. Read Heb. 10.4:

Bulls' blood and goats' blood are incapable

of taking away sins.

It’s a complete rejection of Christ and his atonement. The Hebrew roots movement has also influenced Dispensationalism, to such an extent that the latter distinguishes between 2 classes of people in the Bible, namely, the Jews and the church. And they also assert that these 2 groups have supposedly two completely different programs of salvation. They believe that the Jews don’t need Jesus; they can be saved through their own covenants. And if some reasonable theologian rightly objects, he’s immediately attacked as an antisemite, or as one who resorts to replacement theology. However, the attempt to fuse Judaism with Christianity has been disastrous. In the final analysis, you either follow Christ or Moses, but not both!

Elohim, the Everlasting Father

Isaiah 9:6

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Philippians 2:5-10

5 In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus 6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage; 7 rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature[b] of a servant, being made in human likeness. 8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to death - even death on a cross! 9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name, 10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,

Revelation 5

The Lion, the Lamb

5 I saw that there was a scroll in the right hand of the one sitting on the throne. The scroll was written on the inside and the outside, and it was sealed with seven seals. 2 I saw a strong angel announcing in a loud voice, ‘Does anybody deserve to open the scroll, to undo its seals?’ 3 And nobody in heaven or on the earth or under the earth could open the scroll or look at it. 4 I burst into tears because it seemed that there was nobody who was worthy to open the scroll or look inside it. 5 One of the elders, however, spoke to me. ‘Don’t cry,’ he said. ‘Look! The lion from the tribe of Judah, the Root of David, has won the victory! He can open the scroll and its seven seals.’

6 Then I saw in the midst of the throne and of the four living creatures, and in the midst of the elders, a lamb. It was standing there as though it had been slaughtered; it had seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven spirits of God sent out into all the earth. 7 The lamb came up and took the scroll from the right hand of the one who was sitting on the throne.

Worthy Is the Lamb!

8 When he took the scroll, the four living creatures and the twenty-four elders fell down in front of the lamb. They each had a harp, and they each had golden bowls full of incense, which are the prayers of God’s holy people. 9 They sing a new song, which goes like this:

‘You are worthy to take the scroll;

you are worthy to open its seals;

for you were slaughtered and with your own blood

you purchased a people for God,

from every tribe and tongue,

from every people and nation

10 and made them a kingdom and priests to our God

and they will reign on the earth.’

11 As I watched, I heard the voice of many angels around the throne, the living creatures and the elders. Their number was ten thousand times ten thousand, thousands upon thousands, 12 and they were saying in full voice,

‘The slaughtered lamb has now deserved

to take the riches and the power,

to take the wisdom, strength and honour,

to take the glory, and the blessing.’

13 Then I heard every creature in heaven, on the earth, under the earth, and in the sea, and everything that is in them, saying,

‘To the One on the throne and the lamb

be blessing and honour and glory

and power for ever and ever!’

14 ‘Amen!’ cried the four living creatures. As for the elders, they fell down and worshipped.

A picture I took on Easter

Hope everyone had a blessed one

Shalom