Lord's Coming - Tumblr Posts

11 years ago

νυνϊ δε απαξ επι ϲυντελεια των αιωνων ειϲ αθετηϲιν τηϲ αμαρτιαϲ δια τηϲ θυϲιαϲ αυτου πεφανερωται.“ (Hebrews 9:26, Codex Sinaiticus, Greek NT). Translation: "Once in the conclusion of the ages [in Greek the word αιωνων/‘ages’ means 'centuries’] has he been made manifest, to put away sin through the sacrifice of himself.” (Hebrews 9:26, Codex Sinaiticus). According to this verse, did Jesus come in the time of antiquity, or is he manifested to die for the sins of mankind in the conclusion of all the centuries? Either the Gospels are right and this verse is wrong, or this verse is right and the Gospels are wrong. Both can’t be right. You’d have to tear this page out of the Bible to believe in the current view. Or is the Bible contradicting itself? No, the Bible is without contradiction. Both are right. But how? Because the Gospels are only narrative renderings of a messianic prophecy that is given to us in the form of a theological story that we can all understand and then pass it down through the corridors of time to our posterity. Whereas the Epistles are direct messages, not stories, which are meant to expatiate on the teachings of Christ. That’s why there’s no mention of the magi, the nativity scene, the virgin birth, or Bethlehem in the Epistles. So which of the two categories (the Gospels or the Epistles) provide the most accurate time of Christ’s incarnation? You decide.

Eli of Kittim


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